Ask Question
24 November, 21:42

Are 40/1000 and 40% equivalent

+2
Answers (2)
  1. 24 November, 21:46
    0
    No, they are not equivalent

    Step-by-step explanation:

    To find the percentage of 40/1000 you must divide

    40/1000=0.04

    To make this a percentage multiply it by 100

    Then you get 4%

    4% and 40% are not the same
  2. 24 November, 21:55
    0
    1000 is equal to (40 / 1000) x 100 = 4%

    so ... yes. It is equivalent.
Know the Answer?
Not Sure About the Answer?
Find an answer to your question 👍 “Are 40/1000 and 40% equivalent ...” in 📗 Mathematics if the answers seem to be not correct or there’s no answer. Try a smart search to find answers to similar questions.
Search for Other Answers