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Pooky
Mathematics
24 November, 21:42
Are 40/1000 and 40% equivalent
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Lila Duarte
24 November, 21:46
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No, they are not equivalent
Step-by-step explanation:
To find the percentage of 40/1000 you must divide
40/1000=0.04
To make this a percentage multiply it by 100
Then you get 4%
4% and 40% are not the same
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Chaz Rowland
24 November, 21:55
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1000 is equal to (40 / 1000) x 100 = 4%
so ... yes. It is equivalent.
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