A sub-group of individuals who suffer from a particular disease exhibit a base-pair substitution in the messenger RNA for a protein related to the disease. A researcher concludes that this form of the disease result is heritable. Which of the following, if true, would justify this conclusion?

a) There is no correlation between the incidence of the base-pair substitution and the incidence of the disease in the population.

b) The base-pair substitution does not change the amino acid that corresponds to the codon.

c) The same group of individuals exhibits a corresponding base-pair substitution in the DNA.

d) The base-pair substitution in the mRNA occurs in an intron.

c) The same group of individuals exhibits a corresponding base-pair substitution in the DNA.

Explanation:

Heredity is a biological phenomenon extremely linked to genetics. This process is characterized by the transmission of genetic information between parents and children, through reproduction.

This genetic information is transmitted through DNA. For this reason, some genetic errors that cause diseases and mutations are passed on to the same person in a family, since they all have extremely similar DNA.

For this reason, we can say that in relation to the question above, the researcher can conclude that the disease is hereditary when the same group of individuals exhibits a corresponding base pair replacement in DNA.

I believe the correct answer is C. I'm sure that it isn't A. I'm not 100% sure but I just took biology and I think the answer is C. Have a nice day