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29 October, 06:39

One form of hemophilia is caused by a sex-linked recessive gene. assume that a man with hemophilia marries a phenotypically normal woman whose father had hemophilia. what is the probability that their first son will have hemophilia?

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  1. 29 October, 06:45
    0
    When a haemophilic carrier female marries a haemiphilic man then due to ther genotypes

    Xc=carrier of haemophilia

    Xn=normal

    Y=dont carry haemophilic genes

    so here we go!

    XcY cross with XcXn

    genotypes of ther offsprings

    1=XcXc

    2=XcXn

    3=XcY

    4=XnY

    so from whole 4 there is 50% parobability
  2. 29 October, 07:04
    0
    The mother inherited her father's X chromosome so her genotype is XHXh and she produces XH and Xh gametes.

    The father's genotype is XhY and he produces Xh and Y gametes.

    The possible outcomes are XHXh normal female (carrier), XhXh (affected female), XHY (normal son) XhY (affected son)

    So the probability of an affected daugher is 1.4
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