In humans, having freckles is the result of a dominant gene, and not having freckles is a recessive trait. If a freckled man who is homozygous for this trait has a child with a woman who does not have freckles, which of the following best describes how their child would most likely appear?

A. Their child would not have freckles if the father passes on the recessive allele.

B. Their child would have freckles.

C. Their child would not have freckles.

D. Their child would have freckles since the mother is a carrier for freckles.

Can someone explain this for me?

Question

Marshall Blair

Biology

6 November, 20:02

In humans, having freckles is the result of a dominant gene, and not having freckles is a recessive trait. If a freckled man who is homozygous for this trait has a child with a woman who does not have freckles, which of the following best describes how their child would most likely appear?

A. Their child would not have freckles if the father passes on the recessive allele.

B. Their child would have freckles.

C. Their child would not have freckles.

D. Their child would have freckles since the mother is a carrier for freckles.

Can someone explain this for me?

+1

Answers (2)

Know the Answer?

Cody · Answer 1

The answer is C. Draw a Punnett square.

Lyric · Answer 2

Its b because if you cross FF (freckles) and ff (no freckles) using punnet square or any method you will get 100% Ff. Since its recesive Ff means having freckles so the answer is b their child would have freckles