If the net present value of the payments at the time of the leases was 88% of the actual market price and the useful life of the lease was 70% and the title did not transfer at the end of the lease term, the lease will still qualify as an operating lease

A. True

B. False

A. True

Explanation:

Examples of situations that individually or in combination would normally lead to a lease being classified as a finance lease are:

(a) the lease transfers ownership of the underlying asset to the lessee by the end of the lease term;

(b) the lessee has the option to purchase the underlying asset at a price that is expected to be sufficiently lower than the fair value at the date the option becomes exercisable for it to be reasonably certain, at the inception date, that the option will be exercised;

(c) the lease term is for the major part of the economic life of the underlying asset even if title is not transferred;

(d) at the inception date, the present value of the lease payments amounts to at least substantially all of the fair value of the underlying asset; and

(e) the underlying asset is of such a specialised nature that only the lessee can use it without major modifications.

Since at the time of lease the net present value of the payments is 88% of the actual market price and the useful life of the asset was 70% at the end of the lease term and also the title of asset shall not be transferred to lessee at the end of lease term, therefore the lease shall not be classify as finance lease and it shall be classified as operating lease so the answer is A. True