Ask Question
29 August, 15:49

A property is being appraised using the income capitalization approach. Annually, it has potential gross income of $40,000, vacancy and credit losses of $3,500, and operating expenses of $16,000. Using a capitalization rate of 8%, what is the indicated value (to the nearest $1,000) ?

+4
Answers (2)
  1. 29 August, 15:56
    0
    Answer: $256,000

    Explanation:

    Given the following;

    Gross income = $40,000

    Vacancy and credit losses = $3,500

    Operating expenses = &$16,000

    Capitalization rate = 8%

    Using the income capitalization approach, property is valued based based on the revenue which it could potentially generate. These includes property which could be leased, whereby money is generated from lease amount.

    Cost incurred is deducted from revenue to get the net income

    Net income = Gross income - cost incurred

    Gross income - (Vacancy or credit losses + operating expense)

    $40,000 - ($3,500+$16,000)

    $40,000 - $19,500 = $20,500

    Net income = $20,500

    Net income : capitalization rate

    $20,500 : (8:100)

    $20,500 : 0.08 = $256,250

    Indicated value = $256,000 (to the nearest 1000 dollar)
  2. 29 August, 16:01
    0
    Value $ 256,250

    rounding against nearest 1,000 dollar: 256,000

    Explanation:

    From the gross income we subtract the expenses and vanacy losses.

    40,000 gross income - 3,500 vacancy - 16,000 operating expense

    20,500 net

    Now, we solve for the present value of a perpetuity given the capitalziation rate of 8%

    $ 20,500 / 0.08 = $ 256,250
Know the Answer?
Not Sure About the Answer?
Find an answer to your question 👍 “A property is being appraised using the income capitalization approach. Annually, it has potential gross income of $40,000, vacancy and ...” in 📗 Business if the answers seem to be not correct or there’s no answer. Try a smart search to find answers to similar questions.
Search for Other Answers