A seller sold a house to a buyer allowing the buyer to take over the loan on a "subject to" basis. After 2 years, the buyer defaulted on the loan. Who would be liable to the lender for the note?
The Seller would be primarily liable
The Buyer would be primarily liable
Both buyer and seller would be primarily liable
Neither buyer or seller would be primarily liable
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Home » Business » A seller sold a house to a buyer allowing the buyer to take over the loan on a "subject to" basis. After 2 years, the buyer defaulted on the loan.