Read the excerpt below and answer the question.

I learned that to this unending torment

Have been condemned the sinners of the flesh,

Those who surrender reason to self-will. (V; l. 37-39)

Which explains how the meaning of the passage would change if the word "torment" were replaced by the word "pain"?

The passage would suggest that the sinners' suffering is self-inflicted.

The passage would suggest that the sinners failed to resist their passionate desires.

The passage would suggest that the sinners are responsible for their misdeeds in the mortal world.

The passage would suggest that the sinners may be experiencing natural, rather than inflicted, discomfort.

Question

Nelson

English

22 December, 02:40

Read the excerpt below and answer the question.

I learned that to this unending torment

Have been condemned the sinners of the flesh,

Those who surrender reason to self-will. (V; l. 37-39)

Which explains how the meaning of the passage would change if the word "torment" were replaced by the word "pain"?

The passage would suggest that the sinners' suffering is self-inflicted.

The passage would suggest that the sinners failed to resist their passionate desires.

The passage would suggest that the sinners are responsible for their misdeeds in the mortal world.

The passage would suggest that the sinners may be experiencing natural, rather than inflicted, discomfort.

+3

Answers (1)

Know the Answer?

Titan · Answer 1

After reading the excerpt represented above, I am pretty sure I recognized the correct answer, so the option explains how the meaning of the passage would change if the word "torment" were replaced by the word "pain" is definitely the last one : The passage would suggest that the sinners may be experiencing natural, rather than inflicted, discomfort. The word 'pain' in its first turn bring a physical meaming which is very sensible to use in context containing carnal sin.