Ask Question
11 February, 05:02

How might Macbeth be considered a superior or privileged person?

+1
Answers (1)
  1. 11 February, 05:12
    0
    As the play opens he has just proved himself a superior soldier in battle. He is already a lord, but his performance on the battle field wins him the new title of Thane of Cawdor.

    One of the oddities of the play is that he is married to a woman (now Lady Macbeth) who has had children, but Macbeth has no children. The Scottish Lord upon whom Macbeth is based was married to a woman who was older than he. Presumably the Macbeth of the play must have gained some additional wealth and/or advantage through the marriage to a woman who enjoyed some position. Since the King was invited to stay at Macbeth's castle we can assume he had the advantage of some wealth and prestige.
Know the Answer?
Not Sure About the Answer?
Find an answer to your question 👍 “How might Macbeth be considered a superior or privileged person? ...” in 📗 English if the answers seem to be not correct or there’s no answer. Try a smart search to find answers to similar questions.
Search for Other Answers