A political analyst conducted an observational study in 2014 that measured the rate of voter dissatisfaction with the United States Congress in several United States congressional districts and the increase in the number of political attack advertisements televised in the same districts since the previous congressional election cycle. The study concluded that the rate of voter dissatisfaction in the districts is comparable to the rate of increase of televised political attack ads in the same districts since the previous congressional election cycle. Based on this data, which conclusion is valid?

Question

Cameron Mcclure

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14 March, 19:50

A political analyst conducted an observational study in 2014 that measured the rate of voter dissatisfaction with the United States Congress in several United States congressional districts and the increase in the number of political attack advertisements televised in the same districts since the previous congressional election cycle. The study concluded that the rate of voter dissatisfaction in the districts is comparable to the rate of increase of televised political attack ads in the same districts since the previous congressional election cycle. Based on this data, which conclusion is valid?

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Rory Fields · Answer 1

Based on the facts it could be concluded that the opposing party holds majority of the voter's population. Also, the televised ads are sponsored by the opposition party.

Explanation:

Since the rate of voters dissatisfaction is proportional to the rate of increase of televised political attack ads, it could be argued that the opposition party are the sponsors of the televised ads and the opposing party voters make up majority of the voter's population