Ask Question
26 January, 04:53

Are the expressions 3{y+1} and 3y+3 equivalent for any value? explain

+4
Answers (2)
  1. 26 January, 05:04
    0
    Yes

    Step-by-step explanation:

    The distributive property states that a (b+c) = ab+ac. Working out the first equation, we see that 3 (y+1) is 3y+3. Because the second equation is 3y+3, they are also equal.
  2. 26 January, 05:08
    0
    yes

    Step-by-step explanation:

    It is because you need to times in the answer

    3 (y+1) mutiply it in!

    3times y and 3 times 1

    it equals to 3y+3
Know the Answer?
Not Sure About the Answer?
Find an answer to your question 👍 “Are the expressions 3{y+1} and 3y+3 equivalent for any value? explain ...” in 📗 Mathematics if the answers seem to be not correct or there’s no answer. Try a smart search to find answers to similar questions.
Search for Other Answers