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16 November, 06:02

Can the mean value theorum be applied to the function f (x) = 1/x^2 on the interval [-2, 1]? Explain.

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  1. 16 November, 06:26
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    No, it can not be applied.

    Step-by-step explanation:

    f (x) = 1/x²

    f (x) is a polynomial that is not continuous

    As,

    f (x) = 1/0 is undefines

    Secondly, it is not differentiable (i. e. the derivative does not exists on the interval given)

    Derivative of this function

    f' (x) = (1) x^-2

    = - 2x^ (-2-1)

    = - 2x^ (-3)

    = - 2/x³

    = - 2/x³

    f' (0) = - 2/0 is undefined

    Thus, mean value theorem can not be applied.
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