The inverse of f (x) = x^2 is also a function t/f

Question

Brendan Brewer

Mathematics

17 January, 18:04

The inverse of f (x) = x^2 is also a function t/f

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Answers (2)

Know the Answer?

Devon Potts · Answer 1

False

Step-by-step explanation:

The inverse of f (x) = x^2 is not a function, since the graph fails the vertical line test: a vertical line drawn thru the graph intersects it in 2 places (except at (0,0)).

Clinton Bridges · Answer 2

The Answer is false.

the function f (x) = x 2 is NOT one-to-one, and therefore cannot have an inverse. Therefore, the function f (x) = x 2 does NOT have an inverse.