Ask Question
19 April, 08:36

Earle says that m

X (-1) is always equal to m

= (-1), for all rational values of m. Is he correct?

+2
Answers (1)
  1. 19 April, 08:49
    0
    No, because M can be any number
Know the Answer?
Not Sure About the Answer?
Find an answer to your question 👍 “Earle says that m X (-1) is always equal to m = (-1), for all rational values of m. Is he correct? ...” in 📗 Mathematics if the answers seem to be not correct or there’s no answer. Try a smart search to find answers to similar questions.
Search for Other Answers