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24 May, 02:37

Explain why the logarithm of 1 for any permissible base is 0

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  1. 24 May, 02:52
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    The equation

    x = log (base b) of y

    is equivalent to

    y = b^x

    So if y = 1, we have

    1 = b^x

    which implies that x = 0 since b is not 0.
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