Ask Question
29 November, 19:07

Is it true that since sin^2 (x) + cos^2 (x) = 1, then sin (x) + cos (x) = 1? Explain

+5
Answers (2)
  1. 29 November, 19:10
    0
    No.

    An easy counterexample is sin (30°) + cos (30°) which is more than 1.
  2. 29 November, 19:26
    0
    No it is not true because the 2 expressions are not equal nor is sin^2 x + cos^2 x equal to the square of sin x + cos x.
Know the Answer?
Not Sure About the Answer?
Find an answer to your question 👍 “Is it true that since sin^2 (x) + cos^2 (x) = 1, then sin (x) + cos (x) = 1? Explain ...” in 📗 Mathematics if the answers seem to be not correct or there’s no answer. Try a smart search to find answers to similar questions.
Search for Other Answers