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26 November, 11:17

John says that if one side of an inequality is 0, you don't have to reverse the inequality symbol when you multiply or divide both sides by a negative number. Find an inequality that you can use to disprove John's statement. Explain your thinking.

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  1. 26 November, 11:35
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    X >0

    so x <0 if and only if x is - x

    therefore u had to reverse the sign when multiplying by - 1

    mic drop

    brainliest?
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