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Marin Mosley
Mathematics
14 December, 12:15
The inverse of g (x) is a function
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Terrence Ibarra
14 December, 12:29
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yes because u can use g times any thing to get the right answer
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Quincy Jimenez
14 December, 12:37
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Yes it isAnswer:
Step-by-step explanation:
cause g over x isn't a function so it isn't oh wait it si
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