Which statement could be used to explain why the function h (x) = x has an inverse relation that is also a function?

Since h (x) is a one-to-one function, this means its inverse is also a function

Step-by-step explanation:

The key idea here is knowing that a function needs to be a 'many - to - one' operation (Many could also include one-to-one functions. The key if that for any x, there is only one f (x) value).

This means that for a function to have an inverse, it needs to be one-to-one. Since the domain and range switch when we look at inverse relations, and so if we have a many-to-one function, then it's inverse would be one-to-many. But we need it to be one-to-one. So the original function would need to be one-to-one.

However the short answer is to just know the 'theorem' which says that a function has an inverse function if and only if it is a one-to-one function.