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17 April, 00:42

Two angles and one side in a triangle are equivalent to those in another triangle. Are the remaining sides and angles equivalent?

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Answers (2)
  1. 17 April, 00:57
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    Yes, they would be equivalent because the only difference between them would be that they are reduced by a number.
  2. 17 April, 00:58
    0
    It depends if the one side is in between the angles or not.
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