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21 April, 13:56

Is the set of functions f1 (x) = ex + 2, f2 (x) = ex - 4 linearly dependent or linearly independent on (-[infinity], [infinity]) ? Discuss. Since ex - 4 = ex + 2, we see that ex - 4 a constant multiple of ex + 2 and the set of functions is linearly.

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  1. 21 April, 14:06
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    not linearly independent

    Step-by-step explanation:

    Given:

    - A set of function is given as follows:

    f1 (x) = e^ (x + 2)

    f2 (x) = e^ (x-4)

    Find:

    Is the set of functions f1 (x) & f2 (x) linearly dependent or linearly independent on (-[infinity], [infinity]) ?

    Solution:

    - Re-write the two functions in the form as shown below:

    f1 (x) = e^ (x) * e^2

    f2 (x) = e^ (x) * e^-4

    - Divide the two functions f1 (x) / f2 (x):

    f1 (x) / f2 (x) = [e^ (x) * e^2] / [e^ (x) * e^-4]

    f1 (x) / f2 (x) = e^ (6)

    - The function f1 (x) is e^6*f2 (x) a scalar multiple we can say that two functions are not linearly independent.
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