Mathematics

12 July, 01:58

Which of the following explains why } (x) = log2x

does not have a y-intercept? Check all that apply.

There is no power of 4 that is equal to 0.

There is no power of 4 that is equal to 1.

Its inverse does not have any x-intercepts.

Its inverse does not have any y-intercepts

DONE

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