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19 September, 07:58

Which of the following explains why f (x) = logam

does not have a y-intercept? Check all that apply.

There is no power of 4 that is equal to 0.

There is no power of 4 that is equal to 1.

Its inverse does not have any x-intercepts.

Its inverse does not have any y-intercepts.

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  1. 19 September, 08:01
    0
    There's is no power of 4 that is equal to 0.

    It's inverse does not have any x-intercepts
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