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Suppose that 35% of the voters in a state are registered as Republicans, 40% as Democrats, and 25% as Independents. A newspaper wants to select a sample of 1000 registered voters to predict the outcome of the next election. If it randomly selects 350 Republicans, randomly selects 400 Democrats, and randomly selects 250 Independents, did this sampling procedure result in a simple random sample of registered voters from this state?

A. No, because not all possible groups of 1000 registered voters had the same chance of being chosen.

B. Yes, because each registered voter had the same chance of being chosen.

C. Yes, because random chance was involved.

D. No, because not all registered voters had the same chance of being chosen.

E. No, because a different number of registered voters was selected from each party.

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Answers (1)
  1. 25 May, 19:03
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    No, because a different number of registered voters was selected from each party is the correct answer.

    Explanation:

    Randomly is and adverb that, according to the first definition of Cambridge Dictionary, means "in a way that happens, is done, or is chosen by chance rather than according to a plan". So, in the question, there is a plan, which is to choose a proportional numbers of voters, making the party (or not having one) the first filter. After that, then voter can be chosen randomly, but for the whole study, not everyone has the same opportunity to be chosen, specially if the voter belongs to the 25% that agree with Independents.
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