Was the feudalism in japan the same or different than feudalism that existed europe why or why not

It was different because the empire started to loss control of Japan so nobles gained great power and wealth. They owned estates that peasants worked on. Also when you look at the definition or at least the definition I have in my notes it says " feudalism (in Japan) a system in which poor people are legally bound to work for wealthy landowners." And the other definition has something to do with the the exchange of military services.