What has income per person done during the past 200 years?

a. it increased far more rapidly in both developed and less developed countries than during the centuries prior to 1800.

b. it increased far less rapidly in both developed and less developed countries than during the centuries prior to 1800.

c. it increased in the developed countries of western europe and north america, but declined in the rest of the world.

d. it declined in the developed countries of western europe and north america, but increased in the rest of the world?

Question

Laurel Waters

History

24 October, 14:47

What has income per person done during the past 200 years?

a. it increased far more rapidly in both developed and less developed countries than during the centuries prior to 1800.

b. it increased far less rapidly in both developed and less developed countries than during the centuries prior to 1800.

c. it increased in the developed countries of western europe and north america, but declined in the rest of the world.

d. it declined in the developed countries of western europe and north america, but increased in the rest of the world?

+2

Answers (1)

Know the Answer?

Moshe · Answer 1

The correct answer here is A.

The income per person has definitely increased in the last 200 years. This is evident in both the developed and less developed countries. The rise has also happened rapidly. According to some estimates and papers the income per person is about ten times higher now than it was 200 years ago.