Sign In
Ask Question
Fiona Hendrix
History
31 August, 04:55
Why was India the "middle-man" in ancient times?
+1
Answers (
1
)
Mira Krause
31 August, 05:06
0
India was the middle man in ancient times, because they were the middle of the trade routes from europe to asia. Thus they are the middle men
Comment
Complaint
Link
Know the Answer?
Answer
Not Sure About the Answer?
Find an answer to your question 👍
“Why was India the "middle-man" in ancient times? ...”
in 📗 History if the answers seem to be not correct or there’s no answer. Try a smart search to find answers to similar questions.
Search for Other Answers
You Might be Interested in
Which statement is true about Ivan the Terrible? A) He brought western European culture to Russia B) He rebuilt Moscow C) He invaded the Kremlin D) He is responsible for the institution of serfdom
Answers (1)
How did the unification of Germany following the Franco-Prussian War set up future conflict between Germany and France?
Answers (2)
The declaration of independence has _ part
Answers (1)
Muslims believe that Mohammad was not God's only prophet, but the most important. true or false
Answers (1)
How did the people react with industrial revolution?
Answers (1)
New Questions in History
1. In what ways have the treaties been of lasting significance to all Canadians? 2. In what ways do you think the pass system affected the lives of First Nations people? What long-term consequences might the pass system have had?
Answers (1)
Ideas found in the Declaration of Independence were influenced by the
Answers (1)
Some historians call the Soviet-Afghan war the Soviet Union's "Vietnam." What do they mean by this reference
Answers (2)
What entrepreneurial abilities did the strauss brothers have?
Answers (1)
Why did the states of prussia lead german unification?.
Answers (1)
Home
»
History
» Why was India the "middle-man" in ancient times?
Sign In
Sign Up
Forgot Password?