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27 April, 11:41

Which of the following explains why the munich agreement is an example of appeasement? it resulted in the german invasion of other european countries. it resulted in the german invasion of italy. the participants gave hitler something valuable in exchange for peace. the participants denied hitler permission to take the sudetenland.

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  1. 27 April, 11:43
    0
    Correct answer choice is:

    c. The participants gave Hitler something valuable in exchange for peace.

    Appeasement was the policy of making concessions to the dictatorial powers in order to avoid conflict. Hitler at that time was in great power and was in favor of greater Germany, he invaded many countries but this caused unrest in the world and peace was much needed. Therefore, an agreement was signed between Hitler and Great Britain, France, and Italy to Germany annex certain areas of Czechoslovakia to c reate peace in western Czechoslovakia.
  2. 27 April, 11:53
    0
    The correct answer to this question is "the participants gave hitler something valuable in exchange for peace." The statement that explains why the munich agreement is an example of appeasement is because the participants gave hitler something valuable in exchange for peace.
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