Which of the following best explains whether 1/2 or 1 is the better estimate of 36/40?

A. 20/40 = 1/2 and 40/40 = 1. Since 36 is less than 40, 36/40 is closer to 1/2 than it is to 1.

B. 20/40 = 1/2 and 40/40 = 1. Since 36 is closer to 20 than it is to 40, 36/40 is closer to 1/2 than it is to 1.

C. 20/40 = 1/2 and 40/40 = 1. Since 36 is exactly halfway between 20 and 40, 36/40 is as close to 1/2 as it is to 1.

D. 20/40 = 1/2 and 40/40 = 1. Since 36 is closer to 40 than it is to 20, 36/40 is closer to 1 than it is to 1/2.

Question

4 January, 23:39

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Kaiden Serrano · Answer 1

Option D is the answer